I've been doing some reading on room acoustics and treatment as well as corrective EQ, and I came across an interesting claim. The source of the claim is in the following paper, at the bottom of the 7th page: http://old.infinitysystems.com/home/tec ... design.pdf
So the claim, if I understand it, seems to be that correcting a resonant peak with EQ will not only attenuate it and the ringing but actually remove the ringing altogether.Room resonances at low frequencies behave as “minimum phase” phenomena, and so, if the amplitude vs. frequency characteristic is corrected, so also will the phase vs. frequency characteristic. If both amplitude and phase responses are fixed, then it must be true that the transient response must be fixed – i.e. the ringing, or overhang, must be eliminated.
There's also an article here which includes some real-world measurements which may corroborate that claim: http://www.acousticfrontiers.com/201163 ... odes-html/
I'm wondering if someone might be able to further explain this in a way that I can understand it better. My understanding has been that corrective EQ can only correct frequency domain distortions and not time domain distortions, but if this is true it would be a significant exception.
So my questions, if anyone might be able to answer them, are:
How does a "minimum phase" resonance ring or not ring based on the relative (not absolute) amplitude of that particular frequency?
How does a room's lower frequency resonance end up behaving as "minimum phase?"
Thanks for your time.