Q: Bass notes to accompany chords?

[cryophonik]

Yes, in any arrangement, the lowest note defines the inversion of a chord. However, it's common for people to refer to the chords played on a single instrument as different chord inversions as well. Guitarists do this all the time, where the inversion defines the voicing of a chord on the guitar neck, even though the bassist may still be playing the root note or something else. It's a bit different on a piano, though, where the inversion is identified by the lowest note (usually) plated by the left hand.

[DarkStar]

Thank you, all.

[NMARILLOT]

Hi, the bass note is the boss. It's channels the chord. Example:

If you play:

3: G
2: E
1: C
Root: C

It's a chord of C major

3: C
2: G
1: E
Root: C

It's a chord of C major too

3: G
2: C
1: E
Root: C

It's a chord of C major too..........

So another example:

3: G
2: E
1: C
Root: E

It's a chord of... C/E or Em#5 or EmAug

3: G
2: E
1: C
Root: G

It's a chord of... C/G or G6sus4 (uh)

[jancivil]

3: G
2: E
1: C
Root: E

It's a chord of... C/E or Em#5 or EmAug

1) root of C major harmony is C. A tertial harmony with any of the other 2 (or 3, or 4…) parts in the bass (which the lowest note in a harmony is, by definition.) is known as an inversion.
{None of this has one thing to do with which hand is used on a keyboard. That’s clueless for two reasons: 1) pianists et al cross hands when it’s called for. 2) know a music theory term before advising someone on a board set aside for the subject with a question. The carelessness is disrespectful to all, koor. besides the Music Theory 101 level of this.}

2) It is a C major harmony and absolutely nothing else.
Any augmented triad has a major third. The ear is the real determinant anyway: No one hears E to C in what is clearly a plain, simple C major triad as an augmented fifth. There is no reality to it. E G# B# is literally the only augmented triad from root E. Ab C E is (with the exception of instruments like a violin which can intone differently owing to context, like key) the same harmony, different bass. Equally C E G#. The augmented triad is symmetrical. This is part of its full definition. So an inversion of the harmony is pretty much just a spelling consideration, suiting a key.

[BertKoor]

Hi jan, good to see you're posting again.

Maybe you don't realise it, but English is not my first language. That comes with some lingual obstacles. Should I therefore refrain from posting?

Was my point of view challenged? Sure. Can a good reader draw their own conclusions? Sure. Do I need to crawl through the dust and apologise now I was the one being wrong on the internet? Really? Hmmm, maybe...

Anyway, what cryophonic said on the top of this page is true as well. Context may change meaning of words

[jancivil]

Hi jan, good to see you're posting again.

Maybe you don't realise it, but English is not my first language. That comes with some lingual obstacles. Should I therefore refrain from posting?

”The bass note defines the inversion.”
To this, you argued: Not if you play with two hands.
The theory term *inversion* has a single meaning, and you gainsaid a simple and correct response.

It wasn’t “inverted”, but “inversion”. I guess your native tongue is Dutch. If so, the word is inversie. This seems like a poor excuse, frankly.

Was my point of view challenged? Sure. Can a good reader draw their own conclusions? Sure. Do I need to crawl through the dust and apologise now I was the one being wrong on the internet? Really? Hmmm, maybe...

Your point of view? Your answer is plainly wrong. Can a good reader of the English language, through that/per se be counted on to know the correct answer between the two? I suggest at this point their chances aren’t as high as you want it to be in this argumentative tangent.
I shored up the useful answer, and my irritation at what you did - again - shows.

Context may change meaning of words

There’s only the one context, which a good reader can glean from the combination of the thread title and the answer you took the opportunity to gainsay. Harmonic inversion is what part of the harmony is in the bass.

I am going to be frank, and answer the sardonic question, should you apologize. I don’t know about any dust or dirt or why it would be crawling or abased like this. You have a habit of replies here that if not countered will mislead the original poster and the rest of readers.

It’s interesting you say specifically what you said there, because I was thinking you owe the group an apology. Ever since the misleading reply in the counterpoint book thread, we should only bother with Renaissance era polyphony if we are required to compose specifically that type of music. It’s ignorant of the point of music theory and, to be direct and honest, IME irresponsible. It’s irritating to me personally, no matter who’s done it, the overconfidence in jumping in when one just doesn’t have it.

I imagine the heat I bring in my pique at this quality of replies here will sting a bit, and that it can be seen as overreacting.

Let us not talk falsely, though. Speaking of context, I will not soon forget a singularly vicious personal attack you made against me during a fight I had with another, I think back last spring. It was as far from fair-minded as can be, and told a mendacious story about me. So, I’m just nonplussed by the dramatic crawl through the dust bit.

Objectively speaking, I suggest checking yourself better, for the quality and confirmability of an answer before offering it.

[BertKoor]

Yes, I can be a pig-headed grumpy sarcastic eejit. I hope you can foregive me, because I hold no grudges at all to anyone.

So I've put in some strategic edits for future readers, probably not enough to your taste.

[atwoslottoaster]

I just want to add that once you have the bass pitches as the root of the chords, sometimes it's fun to create a 'false' root chord sometimes simply by using a chord inversion. Sometimes try using the 3rd or the 5th of the chord on the bass on the downbeat instead of the root! Then, next time go back to the root.