Music theory questions

[nuffink]

Actually, nuffink, this:

The theory of tonality is the one you're referring to when you talk about chord systems such as I, ii, iii, IV .... etc. They are diatonic chords which DEFINE a key. When you use notes outside of the tonality - non diatonic notes - you are NOT changing key, nor are you using a mode - the fact that some scales and deviations can be seen as modes is not within the remit of the system of tonality, or its vocabulary, to explain. You are using what are termed 'accidentals' - notes OUTSIDE of the key. These can be used to make a melody more interesting - or they can be used to 'temporarily change key': NOTE - temporarily - this is not deemed a change of key within the system of tonality - it is termed a modulation - a temporary movement to another keynote or scale.

Is as much theory as anything else in this thread.

Yeah, sorry about that. I forgot he started with a bit of dick waving before jumping on Paul's bandwagon and laughing at those who know less than him (allegedly).

[kalleaho]

Modern idea of modes is that they are just different rotations of the same scale. Medieval modes were much more complex things having to do with special melodic formulas and such questions as what are appropriate starting and ending notes in melodic phrases. In that respect they resemble the concept of rag in Indian classical music.

What mode you are using in music depends on which note of the scale is heard as the tonic, the melodic center note. This is why major (ionian) and natural minor (aeolian) modes sound different even when we are using the same collection of notes.

I believe that a lot of modern popular music is modal in conception. Phrygian is very popular in industrial styles, aeolian is much more common than the more 'tonal' harmonic or melodic minor scales, mixolydian is extremely common in folk and rock etc.