I am speechless.JumpingJackFlash wrote:It has not chords in it no. Chords have to be more than one note sounding at the same time. If there is only ever one note played at any given time, it cannot - by definition - contain chords.Ogg Vorbis wrote: Implied, eh? So the following sequence has NO chords in it - just "implied harmonies?"
Of course, if played on the piano and the sustain pedal is pressed, then the result may produce chords as there will be more than one note sounded at a time.
How do you know/find the Dominant chord in a progression?
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- KVRian
- 1084 posts since 12 Sep, 2008 from Your basement
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- KVRAF
- 5524 posts since 5 May, 2007 from Mars Colony
I'm pretty sure an arpeggio is still defined as a chord.
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- KVRAF
- 26033 posts since 20 Oct, 2007 from gonesville
? on your piano there are ?Ogg Vorbis wrote: there are only 12 freaking notes!
where we find 11 quite distinctive >and useful< notes from what you appear to understand as from 1 to 3.
There's the theory, which is just a description of what can happen in practice:
also, in this extremely old raga (documented as early as the late 15th c) there is not a lot of trouble about any 'leading tone'. Such a received cultural norm can be extremely specific and narrow. *Muaic* is not limited like this.
(right before 7 minutes in #1, is one of the hippest things I ever heard)