"Instantaneous feedback". Clarification?

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nuffink wrote:
dr.wackler wrote: Thats right, a feedback loop starts when the original signal is sent into the loop, but the feedback itself happens the very moment it hits the startpoint of the loop again. Makes sense? I don't know how else to explain it.
Where it's inevitably phase shifted to some degree
Which doesn't matter at all, because it's just another aspect.


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dr.wackler wrote:
nuffink wrote:
dr.wackler wrote: Thats right, a feedback loop starts when the original signal is sent into the loop, but the feedback itself happens the very moment it hits the startpoint of the loop again. Makes sense? I don't know how else to explain it.
Where it's inevitably phase shifted to some degree
Which doesn't matter at all, because it's just another aspect.
A phase shift is proof of a delay cos it certainly aint being accelerated.

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dr.wackler wrote: Thats right, a feedback loop starts when the original signal is sent into the loop, but the feedback itself happens the very moment it hits the startpoint of the loop again. Makes sense? I don't know how else to explain it.
Ah, I see what you are getting at - a semantic clarification. But how doesn't that happen in the digital domain? The feedback starts there too when the signal hits its input again, doesn't it?

I'm not after the analog v. digital argument, really, as all things seperate from one another are also different from one another by rote. But I am curious how this process works in the digital domain.

Cheers,
Steve

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nuffink wrote:A phase shift is proof of a delay cos it certainly aint being accelerated.
Not sure if I completely understood that sentence language wise, but:
The presence of a delay caused by the feedback loop is not argued. Neither is the signal that initiates the feedback at the feedback point (the end, respectively the start-again of the loop) said to be the same as the signal that was fed into the loop one loop-cycle earlier.


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Errr, Ok. Night doc.

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shamann wrote: Ah, I see what you are getting at - a semantic clarification. But how doesn't that happen in the digital domain? The feedback starts there too when the signal hits its input again, doesn't it?
It's not just for a semantic clarification just for the sake of it, but because this is what makes the difference so to understand.
(And I just realize that my English hits its boundaries when it comes to more in depth argumantations)

How doesn't that happen in digital? In digital you have at the least 1 sample between the initiation and the reaction. You may say, well, that's a neglegtable latency. But it's not about latency really. With any other process where latency is involved, you can ignore it if you want, because the latency in the very end is just between the computing of a sound and you the perciever. In the case of feedback however it is not. However irrelevant some might think this is, I think it is essential.
Hope that makes some sense.
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