First, I have to note that the high-falutin style here maxes out my bullshit detector at once.bermudagold wrote: Tue Oct 07, 2025 1:40 am[] ...in any generalization, there are certain number of data points that begin to coalesce until the result is some semblance of objective truth...its not entirely subjective...there are sounds and styles that a larger percentage of listeners find inherently pleasing...kritikon wrote: Mon Oct 06, 2025 10:56 pm Any instrument is subjective. All "musical" means is "I like it".
"some semblance of" is a prime example of what we call weasel words. The matter at hand is the fool's errand of defining musicality; is your definition objective or not? In fact you haven't given any definition.You want to basically gainsay the assertion "is subjective"; 'musicality or not is quantifiably objective' will be an extraordinary thing to see, calling for an extraordinary proof.
So of course we aren't supplied one.
"a larger percentage of listeners" is a textbook example of the fallacy argumentum ad populum; and in itself only tells us of the subjectivity of all the members of an imagined majority (none of which were shown as having been polled by you).
found by whom?bermudagold wrote: Tue Oct 07, 2025 1:40 am sounds that are dissonant or inharmonic are generally found to be thought of as less musical...
Two fallacies in the same breath now; predictably, argumentum ad populum again, and as though our definition of musicality is intrinsic to this category of consumers of music. No, the definition remains elusive. We have zero examples of this popular music; so, thus far we have nothing to go by, even to say what is common to all of this music. Aside from this we have not been provided a single such member of this majority of consumers of musical product as though authoritative in the matter. We have literally nothing. So now we're faced with pseudo-science?bermudagold wrote: Tue Oct 07, 2025 1:40 am the very attribute of music becoming pop, by definition means a majority find it more musical than average...
Offered as though 'pleasure' as seen in certain centers of the brain now fill this gap where a definition of musicality is purported to reside. non sequitur; you'd have us believe that "timbres" and "music' are interchangable.bermudagold wrote: Tue Oct 07, 2025 1:40 am there are psychoacoustic cues in certain timbres that the human brain interprets as more pleasing and therefore musical...you can even quantitatively measure how pleasure sensors in the brain light up in response to sounds and playing styles that bound how musical something is..."musical" can definitely be talked about in objective terms and quantifiable ways...
Your arguments for kinda sorta objective are in every case circular to its own premise; there's nothing there. n * 0 = 0.