some questions about harmonisation of a melody

[crazyfiltertweaker]

1.if i harmonize a melody must be all melody notes, which start on a downbeat, part of the harmony chord?

2.how do you I know how often I get back to the tonic? Just at the end of the songpart or every single bar?

3.can I use notes which are not part of my scale without modulation?

Thanks for answers and please dont say: "music has no rules,do what you want" please just answers, thanks!

[Harry_HH]

[quote="Michael1985"]1.if i harmonize a melody must be all melody notes, which start on a downbeat, part of the harmony chord?

Yes, but your options choosing the chord are really numerous (check any chord quide).

2.how do you I know how often I get back to the tonic? Just at the end of the songpart or every single bar?

No rules in this - depends on the music genre and your artistic implementation (and taste).


3.can I use notes which are not part of my scale without modulation?

Yes. (see point 2).

Thanks for answers and please dont say: "music has no rules,do what you want" please just answers, thanks

I would advice to read some good theory book or take some music lessons. Remember: there aren't any shorcuts to really understand things (i.e. theory + praxis). In this context is hard to give any really deep answer without writing 2 pages or so.

[Ogg Vorbis]

The answers to these questions will not come from a forum post, nor a textbook or a piece of software. Your melody will explain to you what it needs. If you are serious about LISTENING to it, it will tell you which notes emphasize the primary harmonies. It will tell you how often you should modulate away to other tonal areas or how often to come back to the original tonal area.

Music theory is to help you hear better.

[Sepheritoh]

1&2: As said before, there are no yes or no answers. Unless you have a reason to do so, the strong beats should have strong notes, i.e. chord notes, but there are many good reasons not to do so.

If you want to read great advice about songwriting, read the blog of Gary Ewer

http://garyewer.wordpress.com/

I have no relation there other than a dedicated reader of his blogs.

Q3: a definite no. It is advicable to have some variation by using passing (non scale) notes in your melodies. Just use them at the right places, i.e. unless you have a reason to do so, not on the first beat, but then there are many reasons to do so. Artist choice is a good reason too. Modern music, especially R&B uses non scale notes freely.

[Harry_HH]

Q3: a definite no. It is advicable to have some variation by using passing (non scale) notes in your melodies. Just use them at the right places, i.e. unless you have a reason to do so, not on the first beat, but then there are many reasons to do so. Artist choice is a good reason too. Modern music, especially R&B uses non scale notes freely.

According to my logic this response is inconsistent with itself. H.

[jancivil]

if i harmonize a melody must be all melody notes, which start on a downbeat, part of the harmony chord?

Yes, but your options choosing the chord are really numerous (check any chord quide).

the question uses the word 'the' per 'the chord'. the answer to this simple question, *must* all tones in a melody that start on a downbeat fit the chord, is NO.

please just answers

The answer is no. To say more to you about this than that is probably a waste of time. Analyze a song sometime, learn some songs all the way through, something, and you'll find some things out. I've said this before, you're not going to find knowledge for yourself expecting people on an internet forum to type at you.

[JumpingJackFlash]

I agree with the others and I've said as much to you in other threads.

1.if i harmonize a melody must be all melody notes, which start on a downbeat, part of the harmony chord?

Not necessarily.
Suspensions and appoggiaturas are two examples where this might not be the case. My introduction to ornamental, unessential, and non-harmony notes might be useful.

2.how do you I know how often I get back to the tonic? Just at the end of the songpart or every single bar?

You know it's right when it sounds good.

3.can I use notes which are not part of my scale without modulation?

Yes. This is called chromaticism.

[Sepheritoh]

Q3: a definite no. It is advicable to have some variation by using passing (non scale) notes in your melodies. Just use them at the right places, i.e. unless you have a reason to do so, not on the first beat, but then there are many reasons to do so. Artist choice is a good reason too. Modern music, especially R&B uses non scale notes freely.

According to my logic this response is inconsistent with itself. H.

Good. Then you get my point.

[Harry_HH]

if i harmonize a melody must be all melody notes, which start on a downbeat, part of the harmony chord?

Yes, but your options choosing the chord are really numerous (check any chord quide).

the question uses the word 'the' per 'the chord'. the answer to this simple question, *must* all tones in a melody that start on a downbeat fit the chord, is NO.

There wasn't any such a question you write "fit the chord". He asked: if all the notes harmonizing the melody must be part of the harmony chord. And the answer is "yes": the harmonizing notes together form (of course)the harmonizing chord. H.

[jancivil]

http://www.ebay.com/sch/Paint-by-Number-/10900/i.html

[Harry_HH]

Q3: a definite no. It is advicable to have some variation by using passing (non scale) notes in your melodies. Just use them at the right places, i.e. unless you have a reason to do so, not on the first beat, but then there are many reasons to do so. Artist choice is a good reason too. Modern music, especially R&B uses non scale notes freely.

According to my logic this response is inconsistent with itself. H.

Good. Then you get my point.

No I didn't. What was it.

[Sepheritoh]

Artistic choice. Do what makes you feel good. If somebody ask, just tell them Al said so.

[jancivil]

if i harmonize a melody must be all melody notes, which start on a downbeat, part of the harmony chord?

Yes, but your options choosing the chord are really numerous (check any chord quide).

the question uses the word 'the' per 'the chord'. the answer to this simple question, *must* all tones in a melody that start on a downbeat fit the chord, is NO.

There wasn't any such a question you write "fit the chord". He asked: if all the notes harmonizing the melody must be part of the harmony chord. And the answer is "yes": the harmonizing notes together form (of course)the harmonizing chord. H.

are you having reading comprehension difficulties?

the question: "if i harmonize a melody must all melody notes, which start on a downbeat, be part of the harmony chord?" if this is true, sticking strictly to chord tones is sufficient for melody and this is some kind of law. one may believe that (or you could choose to believe you read the whole sentence accurately) but reality shows music where other things happened

technically, JJF has shown the term 'apoggiatura', a name for an accented non-chord tone. One could show innumberable instances of non-chord tones happening on the beat in the world.


The answer is an unequivocal no.

are you are actually asserting that every note in a melody 'must' be accounted for in the chord at the time? owing to the fact of it, the melody note, occurring on the downbeat. it would present terrific problems, such a law.

[Harry_HH]

if i harmonize a melody must be all melody notes, which start on a downbeat, part of the harmony chord?

Yes, but your options choosing the chord are really numerous (check any chord quide).

the question uses the word 'the' per 'the chord'. the answer to this simple question, *must* all tones in a melody that start on a downbeat fit the chord, is NO.

There wasn't any such a question you write "fit the chord". He asked: if all the notes harmonizing the melody must be part of the harmony chord. And the answer is "yes": the harmonizing notes together form (of course)the harmonizing chord. H.

are you having reading comprehension difficulties?

the question: "if i harmonize a melody must all melody notes, which start on a downbeat, be part of the harmony chord?" if this is true, sticking strictly to chord tones is sufficient for melody and this is some kind of law. one may believe that (or you could choose to believe you read the whole sentence accurately) but reality shows music where other things happened

technically, JJF has shown the term 'apoggiatura', a name for an accented non-chord tone. One could show innumberable instances of non-chord tones happening on the beat in the world.

The answer is an unequivocal no.

Yes, I must have some kind of dyslexia, because I read
"if i harmonize a melody must be all melody notes, which start on a downbeat, part of the harmony chord?" H.

[jancivil]

evidently the OP made an error I corrected, which changed the meaning how? "be" was in the wrong place.
the meaning is clear enough. you missed the operative 'must' and 'melody notes' in it, the reason why is not that interesting. if you're going to be bellicose about it, 'my logic', see if you can read the thing first, is all.

all the notes harmonizing the melody must be part of the harmony chord. (And the answer is "yes"...)

This is an absurd sentence. Obviously harmony notes are harmony notes. That's your sentence however. My sentence merely placed 'be' more readably, for your benefit. I guess english isn't your native tongue and you encountered some difficulty? in which case I would advise against re-writing people's sentences before you answer them, no offense.