I've a question that fly on my minds since lot of weeks
Not sure if thats the correct forum section, but I'll try.
For how is defined, timbre is defined as the spectrum of a particular sounds. This means the amount/group of partials/overtones (manly harmonics) the sound got and theirs relative amplitude.
But... why if I EQ that particular sound I can feel the same timbre? In fact I'm editing amplitudes of some partials. So timbre should change.
Instead (till I don't do "dramaric eq-ing"), I "feel the same"; such as the "qualia" is kept, and only some attributes (high or low) are attenuated...
Any clues/explanations?
Thanks